PinoyBIX Engineering Problem Solving and Reference

This is the Multiples Choice Questions Part 2 of the Series in Vacuum Tubes as one of the Electronics Engineering topic. In Preparation for the ECE Board Exam make sure to expose yourself and familiarize in each and every questions compiled here taken from various sources including but not limited to past Board Exam Questions in Electronics Engineering field, Electronics Books, Journals and other Electronics References.

Multiple Choice Questions Topic Outline

• MCQs in Vacuum Tubes

The Two-Parts Series

Following is the list of multiple choice questions in this brand new series:

Continue Practice Exam Test Questions Part 2 of the Series

51. Which can be used for proper high frequency amplification?

• A. Triode
• B. Tetrode
• C. Pentode
• D. Diode

52. The indirectly heated cathode of the diode is coated with

• A. thoriated tungsten
• B. nickel
• C. carbon
• D. strontium or barium oxide

53. What started the conduction in a cold cathode tube?

• A. Thermionic emission
• B. Natural sources
• C. Secondary emission
• D. Thermal sources

54. Which emitter is most commonly used in the tubes of a radio receiver?

• A. Tungsten
• B. Oxide coated
• C. Thoriated tungsten
• D. Constantan

55. What is the real measure of valve’s amplification capability?

• A. Plate resistance
• B. Transconductance
• C. Amplification factor
• D. Gain

56. Field emission is utilized in the mechanism of

• A. vacuum tubes
• B. gas-filled tubes
• C. mercury pool devices
• D. TV picture tubes

57. A vacuum tube is normally operated in the temperature saturation region.

• A. To protect against filament aging
• B. To keep the tube envelope hot
• C. To disperse the space charge
• D. Keep the tube envelope cold

58. Plate saturation results when

• A. filament voltage is too high
• B. space-charge region is depleted
• C. plate temperature is too low
• D. space-charge region is saturated

59. When the control grid of a triode is operated with positive potential with respect to cathode

• A. the grid resistance decreases
• B. the grid may overheat
• C. the plate current decreases sharply
• D. the grid resistance increases

60. What is the solid state equivalent of cold cathode diode?

• A. Zener diode
• B. LED
• C. Varactor
• D. Photodiode

61. The nose in a gas-filled tube is ____ that of a vacuum tube.

• A. the same as
• B. less than
• C. more than
• D. very much smaller than

62. What is the phase difference of the output and input voltage of a grounded-cathode amplifier?

• A. 90°
• B. 360°
• C. 270°
• D. 180°

63. A grid controlled vacuum tube acts as

• A. an amplifier
• B. a controlled switch
• C. a rectifier
• D. an oscillator

64. The filament voltage is a direct measure of

• A. filament temperature
• B. amplification
• C. plate temperature
• D. filament resistance

65. The equation that defines the ac plate resistance of a vacuum tube?

• A. ∆E_b/∆E_c
• B. ∆I_b/∆E_c
• C. ∆E_b/∆E_b
• D. ∆E_c/∆I_b

66. The transconductance of a pentode is ______ a triode.

• A. more than that of
• B. about the same as for
• C. less than that of
• D. not comparable to that of

67. The electrons emitted by a thermionic emitter are called

• A. free electrons
• B. thermionic electrons
• C. loose electrons
• D. bound electrons

68. The unit of work function of metals.

• A. Joules
• B. Watt-hour
• C. Electron-volt
• D. Watt

69. What is the typical operating temperature of an oxide coated cathode?

• A. 750°
• B. 500°
• C. 1200°
• D. 1000°

70. What is the amount of additional energy required to emit an electron from the surface of a metal?

• A. Surface barrier
• B. Threshold level
• C. Work function
• D. Potential

71. Oxide coated emitters have electron emission of ______ per watt of heated power.

• A. 5-10 A
• B. 50-100 A
• C. 50-150 mA
• D. 150-1000 mA

72. What is the pentagrid converter?

• A. A tube with a total of five electrodes
• B. A tube with a total of five grids
• C. A tube that can be used for frequency conversion
• D. A tube that requires twice as such plate voltage as a single triode

73. Which emission is most widely used in practice?

• A. Field
• B. Secondary
• C. Thermionic
• D. Photo

74. What is the work function of an oxide coated cathode?

• A. 4.0 electron-volts
• B. 2.63 electron-volts
• C. 4.52 electron-volts
• D. electron-volts

75. A directly heated cathode has ____ warm-up time

• A. zero
• B. large
• C. small
• D. very large

76. Which thermionic emitter has the highest opening temperature?

• A. Oxide coated
• B. Tungsten
• C. Thoriated-tungsten
• D. Eureka

77. The internal resistance after ionization of a gas-filled tube is

• A. low
• B. very high
• C. high
• D. zero

78. One advantage of a mercury vapor diode over the high rectifier is

• A. its higher peak inverse voltage rating
• B. its reduced RF interference effect
• C. its lower voltage drop when the plate current is flowing
• D. the elimination of the need for a warm up period

79. The screen grid is used to

• A. increase the capacitance between the second grid and the plate
• B. decrease the capacitance between the control grid and the plate
• C. reduce the secondary emission effect
• D. lower the tube’s plate resistance

80. A tube tester is used to check a triode’s transconductance, which is the ratio of

• A. a small change in cathode current to the corresponding small change in grid current
• B. a small change in plate current to the corresponding small change in grid current
• C. a small change in plate voltage to the corresponding small change in plate current
• D. a small change in plate voltage to the corresponding small change in plate current

81. Which emitter is used in high voltage (>10 kV) applications?

• A. Tungsten
• B. Oxide coated
• C. Thoriated-tungsten
• D. Constantan

82. Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of an emitter?

• A. Large work function
• B. Small work function
• C. Very large work function
• D. Very small work function

83. When a thyratron tube has fired one thing that will cause it to stop conducting is

• A. a more positive on the plate
• B. a more negative voltage on the control electrode
• C. a more positive voltage on the control electrode
• D. a negative voltage on the plate

84. Secondary emission effects are undesirable in

• A. vacuum tubes
• B. gas-filled tubes
• C. ICs
• D. transistors

85. What would cause the plate current to increase in a pentode tube?

• A. A short circuit between the plate and the screen grid
• B. An open circuit in the lead that is connected to the
• C. A short circuit between the suppressor grid and the cathode
• D. A short circuit between the control grid and the cathode

86. In directly heated cathode, filament and cathode are

• A. separated components
• B. same components
• C. made of metals
• D. made of alloys

87. What is provided by transformer coupling?

• A. Impedance matching
• B. Step-up in voltage
• C. Good frequency response
• D. Stability of gain

88. What is one advantage of a pentode tube over a triode?

• A. Lower input impedance
• B. Lower output impedance
• C. Less noise internally generated
• D. Less control grid to plate capacitance

89. The load resistance R in a triode amplifier should be nearly _____ for good amplification.

• A. ½ r_p
• B. 3 r_p
• C. r_p
• D. 2 r_p

90. A voltage amplifier is designed to have

• A. high µ and R_L
• B. low µ and high R_L
• C. high r_p and low R_L
• D. high µ and low R_L

91. What transformer secondary voltage is utilized in a center-tap circuit?

• A. One-half
• B. One-third
• C. full
• D. One-eighth

92. Class C amplifiers are used as ____ amplifiers.

• A. audio-frequency voltage
• B. radio-frequency
• C. audio-frequency power
• D. audio-frequency current

93. The typical application of a cold cathode tube is as a

• A. diode
• B. tetrode
• C. triode
• D. pentode

94. Vacuum tube rectifiers are ____ affected by the changes in temperatures.

• A. not
• B. highly
• C. greatly
• D. severely

95. The internal resistance of a gas-filled tube is _____ that of a vacuum tube.

• A. the same as
• B. less than
• C. more than
• D. dependent

96. The ionization potential in a gas diode depends upon

• A. plate current
• B. size of the tube
• C. cathode construction
• D. type and pressure of gas

97. When the gas pressure in a gas-filled diode is increased, its PIV rating

• A. remains unchanged
• B. decreases
• C. increases
• D. becomes infinite

98. Ionization of cold cathode diode takes place at ______ plate potential compared to hot cathode gas diode.

• A. the same
• B. much lower
• C. much higher
• D. zero

99. A cold cathode diode is used as _____ tube.

• A. a rectifier
• B. a regulating
• C. a power-controlled
• D. an amplifying

100. For a conventional vacuum tube used in the UHF band

• A. The electron transit time becomes critical
• B. The distance between the control grid and the plate must be increased
• C. The physical size of the tube must be increased
• D. Only a pentode can be used because of noise effects

101. Ionization current which is a positive-ion current produced by collision between electrons and residual gas molecules in an electron tube is also called

• A. gas current
• B. gas discharge
• C. plasma current
• D. plasma discharge

Complete List of MCQs in Electronics Engineering per topic

---

This is the Multiples Choice Questions Part 1 of the Series in Vacuum Tubes as one of the Electronics Engineering topic. In Preparation for the ECE Board Exam make sure to expose yourself and familiarize in each and every questions compiled here taken from various sources including but not limited to past Board Exam Questions in Electronics Engineering field, Electronics Books, Journals and other Electronics References.

Multiple Choice Questions Topic Outline

• MCQs in Vacuum Tubes

The Series

Following is the list of multiple choice questions in this brand new series:

Start Practice Exam Test Questions Part 1 of the Series

1. What are the two principal electrodes in every tube?

• A. Plate and control grid
• B. Cathode and screen grid
• C. Plate and cathode
• D. Screen grid and control grid

2. For a given plate voltage, if negative potential on the control grid of triode is increased, the plate current

• A. decreases
• B. remains the same
• C. increases
• D. becomes zero

3. A vacuum diode can be used as

• A. an amplifier
• B. an oscillator
• C. a rectifier
• D. a regulator

4. Which generates the least noise in operation?

• A. Triode valve
• B. Tetrode valve
• C. Pentode valve
• D. Octode valve

5. A vacuum tube will conduct only if its plate is _____ with respect to the cathode.

• A. positive
• B. negative
• C. at zero potential
• D. at infinite potential

6. Saturation in a tube is a condition where an increase in plate voltage will produce

• A. a rise in electron emission
• B. a decrease in electron emission
• C. no appreciable change in plate current
• D. an appreciable change in plate current

7. A vacuum diode can be used as

• A. an amplifier
• B. an oscillator
• C. a rectifier
• D. a regulator

8. Which tube generates the greatest noise?

• A. Triode
• B. Tetrode
• C. Pentode
• D. Diode

9. Before ionisation, a gas- filled tube has a ______ resistance.

• A. very high
• B. very small
• C. small
• D. zero

10. The negative resistance characteristics of the tetrode is due to

• A. secondary emission
• B. plate being positive with respect to cathode
• C. control grid being negative with respect to cathode
• D. screen grid being negative with respect to cathode

11. What emitter is used in X-ray tubes?

• A. Thoriated tungsten
• B. Oxide-coated
• C. Tungsten
• D. Nickel

12. When the temperature of an emitter is increased two times, the electron emission

• A. increases two times
• B. increases four times
• C. increases several million times
• D. decreases two times

13. What is the typical life span of an oxide coated emitter?

• A. 500 hours
• B. 200 hours
• C. 1000 hours
• D. 10000 hours

14. The cathode heating time of thermionic glass diode is ________ that of a vacuum diode.

• A. the same as
• B. much less than
• C. much more than
• D. not related to

15. What is the solid state equivalent of thyratron?

• A. FET
• B. SCR
• C. BJT
• D. UJT

16. The grid to palate capacitance is least in ________ valve

• A. triode
• B. tetrode
• C. pentode
• D. diode

17. The peak inverse voltage of a diode is defined as the maximum allowable

• A. negative voltage across the load resistor
• B. negative voltage applied to plate with respect to cathode
• C. positive voltage to plate with respect to cathode
• D. positive voltage applied across the load resistor

18. The equation that defines the dc plate resistance of a vacuum tube.

• A. E_b/I_b
• B. I_b² x E_b
• C. I_b x E_b
• D. I_b/E_b

19. The voltage on the suppressor grid of a pentode is generally

• A. positive with respect to cathode
• B. positive with respect to cathode
• C. zero with respect to cathode
• D. at zero potential

20. Which of the following defines the amplification factor of a vacuum tube?

• A. ∆E_b/∆E_c
• B. ∆I_b/∆E_b
• C. ∆E_c/∆E_b
• D. ∆E_b/∆I_c

21. Which is the best tube for high frequency amplification?

• A. Triode valve
• B. Tetrode valve
• C. Pentode valve
• D. Diode valve

22. A triode is normally operated with control grid at ________ potential with respect to cathode.

• A. positive
• B. high positive
• C. zero
• D. negative

23. Once a thyratron is fired, its control grid _____ over palate current.

• A. loses all control
• B. exercises rough control
• C. exercises fine control
• D. becomes helpless

24. The ______ voltage should be reduced to zero to stop conduction in a thyratron.

• A. grid
• B. filament
• C. plate
• D. heater

25. What is the typical value of ac plate resistance for a triode?

• A. 1000 Ω
• B. 100 kΩ
• C. 1000 kΩ
• D. 10 Ω

26. Direct coupling is used for _____ amplification.

• A. very low frequency
• B. radio-frequency
• C. audio-frequency
• D. ultra high frequency

27. A vacuum diode acts as a rectifier because of its _______ conduction.

• A. unidirectional
• B. bidirectional
• C. isotropic
• D. omnidirectional

28. Directly heated cathode require _____ amount of heating

• A. very small
• B. large
• C. small
• D. very large

29. A hard tube is defined as a tube with

• A. a tungsten filament
• B. a gas in the envelope
• C. a metal envelope
• D. no gas in the envelope

30. What operation results in severest distortion?

• A. Class C
• B. Class B
• C. Class A
• D. Class AB

31. What is the typical plate efficiency of Class A amplifier?

• A. 50 %
• B. 75 %
• C. 30 %
• D. 10 %

32. For the sample plate dissipation, the output power of a Class B push-pull circuit is nearly _____ that of Class A operation.

• A. 2 times
• B. 4 times
• C. 3 times
• D. 5 times

33. The screen grid potential is kept ___ plate potential

• A. somewhat lower than
• B. same as
• C. somewhere higher than
• D. at zero potential with respect to

34. The output stage of a practical amplifier always employs what coupling?

• A. RC coupling
• B. Transformer coupling
• C. Direct coupling
• D. Impedance coupling

35. The plate resistance of a tube is mainly due to

• A. space charge
• B. electrodes of the tube
• C. vacuum in the tube
• D. gas in the tube

36. A vacuum tube is a ____ device.

• A. linear
• B. exponential
• C. non-linear
• D. bilateral

37. What is the unit of transconductance?

• A. Ohm
• B. Siemen/m
• C. Volt
• D. Siemen

38. Which provides the best frequency response?

• A. Transformer coupling
• B. RC coupling
• C. Direct coupling
• D. Impedance coupling

39. Voltage amplifiers are operated as _____ amplifiers.

• A. Class A
• B. Class B
• C. Class C
• D. Class AB

40. The PIV of hot cathode gas diode is _____ the equivalent vacuum diode.

• A. the same as that of
• B. less than
• C. more than
• D. independent that of

41. The anode-cathode potential of a gas-filled tube at which gas de-ionizes and stops conduction is called _____ potential.

• A. extinction
• B. ionizing
• C. striking
• D. reverse

42. For the same plate voltage, a gas diode can conduct ______ the equivalent vacuum diode.

• A. less current than
• B. same current as
• C. more current than
• D. one-half the current than

43. A thyratron can be used as

• A. an oscillator
• B. a controlled switch
• C. an amplifier
• D. an attenuator

44. A pentode is a _____ device.

• A. constant current
• B. linear
• C. constant voltage
• D. bilateral

45. The actual voltage gain of a triode amplifier is less than µ due to

• A. grid being negative with respect to cathode
• B. voltage drop in ac resistance of the tube
• C. plate being positive with respect to cathode
• D. voltage drop in dc resistance of the tube

46. For faithful amplification, the control grid should be ______ with respect to cathode.

• A. positive
• B. negative
• C. at zero potential
• D. at infinite potential

47. Which valve has the lowest amplification factor?

• A. Triode
• B. Pentode
• C. Tetrode
• D. Diode

48. Which of the following would have the most effect on decreasing the life of a vacuum tube?

• A. Too much of a grid excitation
• B. An excessive filament voltage
• C. A grid current that is too low
• D. A plate resistance value that is too high

49. Valves in a radio receiver generally employ _____ heated cathodes.

• A. directly
• B. indirectly
• C. oxide
• D. nickel

50. A vacuum diode acts as a ______ switch.

• A. bidirectional
• B. unidirectional
• C. controlled
• D. omnidirectional

Complete List of MCQs in Electronics Engineering per topic

---

This is the Multiples Choice Questions Part 5 of the Series in Computer Fundamentals as one of the Electronics Engineering topic. In Preparation for the ECE Board Exam make sure to expose yourself and familiarize in each and every questions compiled here taken from various sources including but not limited to past Board Exam Questions in Electronics Engineering field, Electronics Books, Journals and other Electronics References.

Multiple Choice Questions Topic Outline

• MCQs in analog and Digital System
• MCQs in Binary Number System
• MCQs in Boolean Algebra
• MCQs in Mathematical Logic and Switching Networks
• MCQs in Basic digital Circuits (logic gates, flip-flops, multivibrators, etc)
• MCQs in Static and dynamic Memory Devices
• MCQs in Programming and Machine Languages
• MCQs in Information and Acquisition Processing
• MCQs in Analog / Digital Conversion
• MCQs in Computer Networking

The Series

Following is the list of multiple choice questions in this brand new series:

Continue Practice Exam Test Questions Part 5 of the Series

201. It is needed to translate a high-level program into a sequence of machine instructions that performs the desired task.

• A. Assembler
• B. Interpreter
• C. Compiler
• D. Debugger

202. Text editors and formatters belong to the area of computing known as _____.

• A. software
• B. word processing
• C. compilers
• D. assemblers

203. The processor or central processing unit is

• A. the heart of the computer
• B. employed RISC
• C. communicates with the user
• D. supports floating point numbers

204. Processors with more than two registers for arithmetic and logical operations are classified as

• A. specific registered processors
• B. general register processors
• C. accumulator based
• D. serial register processor

205. Which of the following is a non-volatile device?

• A. ROM
• B. RAM
• C. PLA
• D. PLD

206. With a _____, a processor can store data at ay address and read back the stored information at any time.

• A. RWM
• B. ROM
• C. PLA
• D. PROM

207. The system program used to translate directly an assembly language to machine language is called

• A. assembler
• B. compiler
• C. text editor
• D. debugger

208. A command to an ADC to start conversion

• A. SOC
• B. EOC
• C. PAC
• D. EAR

209. Speeds of modems are generally classified by the number of _____ they can transmit.

• A. cycles per second
• B. bits per second
• C. frequency per second
• D. all of the choices

210. High speed modems transmit between

• A. 300 and 2400 bps.
• B. 2400 and 9600 bps
• C. between 2400 and 9600 bps
• D. between 300 and 2400 bps

211. Low speed modems method of modulation is usually

• A. phase-shift modulation
• B. dibit modulation
• C. frequency shift keying
• D. amplitude modulation

212. Low speed modems generally handle data rates between

• A. 3000 and 9000 bps
• B. 300 and 2400 bps
• C. 2400 and 9600 bps
• D. 100 and 2400 bps

213. The most important memory element which is made of an assembly of logic gates is called

• A. latch
• B. bistable multivibrator
• C. flip-flop
• D.all of the choices

214. What is the normal resting state of the SET and CLEAR inputs in a flip-flop

• A. Low, high
• B. High, low
• C. High, high
• D. Low, low

215. What will be the states of Q and Q’ after a flip-flop has been cleared?

• A. Q = 1, Q’ = 0
• B. Q = 0, Q’ = 1
• C. Q = 0, Q’ = 0
• D. Q = 1. Q’ = 1

216. When power is first applied to any flip-flop circuit, it is impossible to predict the initial state of Q and Q’. What could be done to ensure that NAND latch always started off in the Q = 1 state?

• A. apply a momentary HIGH to PRESET input
• B. apply a momentary LOW to SET input
• C. apply a momentary LOW to CLEAR input
• D. apply a momentary HIGH to CLEAR input

217. When a flip-flop is set, what are the states of Q and Q’?

• A. Q = 1, Q’ = 0
• B. Q = 0, Q’ = 1
• C. Q = 0, Q’ = 0
• D. Q = 1, Q’ = 1

218. What two types of inputs that a clocked flip-flop has?

• A. synchronous control inputs and clock input
• B. Asynchronous control inputs and clock input
• C. Pulsed control inputs and clock input
• D. all of the choices

219. The flip-flop can change only when the appropriate clock transition occurs. It is a condition called

• A. edge triggered
• B. latching
• C. clocking
• D. pulsing

220. It is the required interval immediately following the active edge of the clock signal during which the control inputs must be held stable.

• A. Hold time
• B. Pulsing time
• C. Set up time
• D. All the time

221. It is the required interval immediately following the active edge held of clocks during which the control inputs must be held.

• A. Set up time
• B. Hold time
• C. Pulsing time
• D. Propagation time

222. What JK input condition will always set Q upon the occurrence of the active clock transition?

• A. J = 0, K = 0
• B. J = 1, K = 0
• C. J = 0, K = 1
• D. J = 1, K = 1

223. How does the operation of asynchronous input differ from that of a synchronous input?

• A. it works independently of the clock input
• B. it is very dependent on the clock transition
• C. it is mutually the same in function
• D. Not determined by ordinary operation

224. The triangle inside the rectangle which is part of the IEEE/ANSI symbol at clock input

• A. indicates the function of those inputs that are common to more than one circuit in the chip
• B. indicates triggering on a NGT
• C. indicates edge-triggered operation
• D. all of the choices

225. Which type of flip-flop is best suited for synchronous transfer because it requires the fewest interconnections from one flip-flop to the other?

• A. JK
• B. T
• C. RS
• D. D

226. The fastest method for transferring data from one register to another is the

• A. serial transfer
• B. parallel transfer
• C. hybrid transfer
• D. FIFO

227. What is the major advantage of serial transfer over parallel transfer?

• A. large interconnections between gates
• B. one at a time transmission
• C. fewer interconnections between registers
• D. speed

228. A 20 KHz clock signal is applied to a JK flip-flop when J = 1, K = 1. What is the frequency of the flip-flop output waveform?

• A. 20 KHz
• B. 10 KHz
• C. 40 KHz
• D. 5 KHz

229. How many flip-flops are required for a counter that will count 0 to 255?

• A. 2
• B. 4
• C. 16
• D. 8

230. It converts a non-electrical physical quantity to an electrical quantity.

• A. Converter
• B. Inverter
• C. Transducer
• D. Compiler

231. What does a computer do with the data it receives from an ADC?

• A. Stores the data
• B. Performs calculation
• C. Processes the data
• D. All of the choices

232. An actuator in the DAC

• A. performs conversion of digital data to its analog representation
• B. controls a physical variable according to an electrical input signal
• C. converts a non-electrical physical quantity to an electrical quantity
• D. performs calculation

233. The maximum deviation of DAC output from its ideal value, expressed as percentage of full scale.

• A. Full scale error
• B. Deviation ratio
• C. Percentage error
• D. None of the choices

234. The time it takes for the DAC output to settle to within ½ step size of its full scale value when the digital input changes from zero to full scale.

• A. Settling time
• B. Set-up time
• C. Hold time
• D. Full scale time

235. Why are voltage DAC’s generally slower than current DAC’s?

• A. Because of the response time of the op-amp current-to-voltage converter
• B. Because of its internal construction
• C. Because voltage DAC’s have many heat losses
• D. None of the choices

236. What is the function of the comparator in the ADC?

• A. Tells control logic when the DAC output exceeds the analog input
• B. Compares two parameters only
• C. Addition and multiplication
• D. Arithmetic operation

237. Meaning of checksum in ROM’s

• A. It is a code placed in the last one or two ROM locations that represents the sum of the expected ROM data from all other locations.
• B. Used as a means to test for leakage in one or more ROM locations
• C. prevents decoding glitches
• D. regulates ROM

238. What is meant by interfacing in a computer system?

• A. Synchronization of data information operation in a computer
• B. Synchronization of digital information transmission between computer and external I/O devices
• C. Connection of computers
• D. Finding the fault in a network

239. Which of the items below is not one of the three major sections of an MPU?

• A. Timing and control
• B. ALU
• C. Register
• D. Inversion

240. What is an operand address?

• A. The binary code that represents the operation to be performed by the CPU
• B. The address of the data to be operated as the CPU executes the instruction called for by the opcode
• C. A short abbreviation for the operation
• D. All of the choices

241. What device puts data on the data bus during a write operation?

• A. ALU
• B. CPU
• C. Keyboard
• D. Accumulator

242. Instruction mnemonic means

• A. a short abbreviation for the operation
• B. a binary code that represents the operation to be performed by the CPU
• C. technical term sometimes added to an IC’s description
• D. representation of a quantity that varies in discrete steps

243. Arrival of a clock signal at the clock inputs of different flip-flops at different times as a result of propagation delays.

• A. Clock transition
• B. Buffer address
• C. Clock skew
• D. None of the choices

244. A circuit made up of combinations of logic gates, with no feedback from output to input.

• A. Sequential logic circuit
• B. Combinational logic circuit
• C. Clocked circuits
• D. Asynchronous circuit

245. A logic circuit that depends on the status of its selected inputs will channel its data input to one of several data outputs.

• A. MUX
• B. DMUX
• C. RAM
• D. ROM

246. Add (74)₈ with (1.1)₂

• A. (700)₁₀
• B. (70.5)₈
• C. (10101.01).₂
• D. (75.4)₈

247. An analog memory output circuit used to eliminate aperture error is called a

• A. MUX
• B. DMUX
• C. Track/store amplifier
• D. Flip-flop

248. Which of the following is not a dynamic test instrument?

• A. Logic probe
• B. Oscilloscope
• C. Logic analyzer
• D. Logic monitor

249. A translated program in machine language is called

• A. a source program
• B. an object program
• C. machine program
• D. users program

250. Perform binary subtraction to 6 ¼ and 4 ½ would result to

• A. 1001. 01
• B. 1.11
• C. 10. 11
• D. 1.00

Complete List of MCQs in Electronics Engineering per topic

---

This is the Multiples Choice Questions Part 4 of the Series in Computer Fundamentals as one of the Electronics Engineering topic. In Preparation for the ECE Board Exam make sure to expose yourself and familiarize in each and every questions compiled here taken from various sources including but not limited to past Board Exam Questions in Electronics Engineering field, Electronics Books, Journals and other Electronics References.

Multiple Choice Questions Topic Outline

• MCQs in analog and Digital System
• MCQs in Binary Number System
• MCQs in Boolean Algebra
• MCQs in Mathematical Logic and Switching Networks
• MCQs in Basic digital Circuits (logic gates, flip-flops, multivibrators, etc)
• MCQs in Static and dynamic Memory Devices
• MCQs in Programming and Machine Languages
• MCQs in Information and Acquisition Processing
• MCQs in Analog / Digital Conversion
• MCQs in Computer Networking

The Series

Following is the list of multiple choice questions in this brand new series:

Continue Practice Exam Test Questions Part 4 of the Series

151. A system of coordinating I/O between the transmitting and receiving devices.

• A. Charging
• B. Handshaking
• C. Interfacing
• D. Polling

152. An area of memory that holds the ASCII characters that are being displayed on a monitor.

• A. Space
• B. Start bit
• C. Terminal
• D. Screen image

153. An IC that transforms parallel data to serial in the asynchronous format and vice versa.

• A. UART
• B. USART
• C. MODEM
• D. RS232C

154. An instruction that alters the normal course of a program by causing it to jump to another instruction.

• A. Rotate instruction
• B. Skip instruction
• C. Jump
• D. ACC

155. An instruction that causes data to be brought from memory into an accumulator register.

• A. LOAD
• B. LOOP
• C. FETCH
• D. JUMP

156. The portion of an instruction cycle where the instruction is sent from memory to the instruction register

• A. LOAD
• B. ACCUMULATE
• C. FETCH
• D. EXECUTE

157. An instruction that causes data in the accumulator to be moved to the memory or a peripheral register.

• A. FETCH
• B. STORE
• C. LOOP
• D. LOAD

158. This occurs when the result of an arithmetic operation is a more negative number than the output register can accommodate.

• A. Error
• B. Overflow
• C. Underflow
• D. Don’t care

159. This occurs when the result of an arithmetic operation is a larger number than the output register can accommodate.

• A. Overflow
• B. Inflow
• C. Underflow
• D. Lock-ahead carry

160. A representation of numbers when negative numbers are obtained by complementing their positive equivalent and adding 1.

• A. 2’s complement
• B. Inversion
• C. Signed numbers
• D. Indeterminate

161. Which of the following is the language used in making an internet web page?

• A. Highertext mark-up language
• B. Hypertext mark-up language
• C. Hightech mark-up language
• D. Hypertext make-up language

162. A program which can be executed on several different computers to compare their speed and performance.

• A. Compiler
• B. Assembler
• C. Diagnostic program
• D. Benchmark

163. A single word memory location used to temporarily hold data during program execution.

• A. Accumulator
• B. Register
• C. Buffer
• D. Stack

164. Refer to the debugging method in which the program is executed one instruction at a time and the register contents can be examined after each step?

• A. Text editing
• B. Syntax analyzing
• C. Trace
• D. Semantic tracing

165. In a computer system, it is a unit of hardware where the control keys are located.

• A. CPU
• B. Keyboard
• C. I/O section
• D. Console

166. If a certain circuit acts as AND gate when used with positive logic (H = 1, L = 0), what function will it perform when used with negative logic (H = 0, L = 1).

• A. OR
• B. AND
• C. NAND
• D. NOR

167. TTL, DTL and ECL which are frequently used to refer to certain “families” of digital integrated circuits, are actually names of

• A. alternatives to positive and negative logic
• B. varieties of positive and negative logic
• C. companies that originated the families
• D. general varieties of electronic circuits used as logic gates, from which, in essence, the building blocks in each series are constructed.

168. In the data sheet of a digital building block, operating speed is typically expressed in terms of

• A. capacitance C
• B. transition frequency
• C. propagation delay times for both possible output transitions
• D. miles per hour or centimeters per second

169. The fan out capability of a digital building block depends on the current capability of its output and the current requirement of each input driven by that output, and maybe defined as the

• A. number of inputs that one output can transmit to
• B. number of other inputs that can transmit to one input
• C. maximum power dissipation that the unit can stand
• D. amount of cooling required

170. Noise margin, which is one indication of how likely it is that information communicated between digital building blocks will be incorrect due to noise, depends on

A. output current capabilities and input current requirements

B. output power and required input power for the two logic states

C. the “safety margin” between the output voltage produced by the transmitting block and input voltage required by the receiving block for each of the two logic state.

D. the “safety margin” between the noise level and the noise figure.

171. Typical propagation delay range for modern digital integrated circuits is

• A. 1 to 100 milliseconds
• B. 1 to 100 microseconds
• C. 1 to 100 nanoseconds
• D. 1 to 100 picoseconds

172. The most commonly used IC package for digital integrated circuits is the

• A. CMOS pack
• B. DIP ceramic
• C. DIP plastic
• D. Flat pack

173. A multiwire connection between digital circuits is usually called a

• A. ribbon
• B. bus
• C. wire wrap
• D. multiplexed line

174. Which of the following is a form of De Morgan’s theorem?

• A. A + B = (AB)’
• B. AB = (A + B)’
• C. (A + B)’ = A’ · B’
• D. A·B = A’ · B’

175. “Limbo” state of a flip-flop occurs when

• A. both outputs are low
• B. both outputs are high
• C. both output are the same
• D. the outputs are inverse

176. A logic circuit that is triggered by a clock signal is

• A. sequential
• B. synchronous
• C. synchronous
• D. pulsed

177. Another name for a decade counter

• A. frequency divider
• B. ripple shift counter
• C. BCD counter
• D. Binary counter

178. Which of the items below can perform parallel-to-serial data conversion?

• A. Shift register
• B. Binary counter
• C. Multiplexer
• D. Decoder

179. Which of the following does not form DACs?

• A. Counter
• B. Resistor network
• C. Current switches
• D. Reference

180. What digits are used in the binary number system?

• A. 0 and 1
• B. high and low
• C. true and false
• D. all of the choices

181. How many bits are in a byte?

• A. 8
• B. 4
• C. 2
• D. 16

182. What binary number follows 1110?

• A. 1010
• B. 0111
• C. 1111
• D. 1000

183. What capital letter corresponds to 1000101 in the ASCII code?

• A. A
• B. C
• C. D
• D. E

184. What is the binary ASCII code for a question mark?

• A. 0111110
• B. 0111111
• C. 0111000
• D. 0100011

185. In the 7400 Family of TTL Devices, Quad 2-input NAND gates has a device number equivalent to

• A. 7400
• B. 7402
• C. 7432
• D. 7486

186. Quad 2-input XOR gates in the 7400 Family of TTL devices has a device number equivalent to

• A. 7402
• B. 7486
• C. 7408
• D. 7404

187. A JK flip-flop will operate in the toggle mode when

• A. J = 0, K = 0
• B. J = 1, K = 0
• C. J = 1, K = 1
• D. J = 0, K = 1

188. A digital circuit test equipment which is a troubleshooting tool that generates a short-duration pulse when activated manually, usually by pressing the button is the _____.

• A. logic probe
• B. VOM
• C. logic clip
• D. logic pulser

189. An RS flip-flop will not change in state when

• A. R = 0, S = 0
• B. R = 1, S = 0
• C. R = 0, S = 1
• D. R =1, S = 1

190. A T flip-flop can be derived by

• A. connecting the two inputs of the JK flip-flop together
• B. by inverting the inputs of a JK flip-flop
• C. connecting the RS flip-flop’s input to ground
• D. securing an integrated circuit with three inputs

191. The number of digits used by a number system.

• A. Base
• B. Radix
• C. 2ⁿ
• D. n

192. What is the condition of the flip-flop when Q = 0 and Q = 1?

• A. Reset
• B. Set
• C. Undetermined
• D. Preset

193. How many logic gates are in an SSI chip?

• A. Less than 12 gates
• B. Between 12 to 99 gates
• C. Anywhere from 100 to 9999 gates
• D. 10,000 or more

194. How many logic gates are in an MSI chip?

• A. Less than 12 gates
• B. Between 12 to 99 gates
• C. Anywhere from 100 to 9999 gates
• D. 10,000 or more

195. How many logic gates are in a VLSI chip?

• A. Less than 12 gates
• B. Between 12 to 99 gates
• C. Anywhere from 100 to 9999 gates
• D. 10,000 or more

196. Which of the following items below is not a part of the hardware organization in a computer?

• A. Architecture
• B. Implementation
• C. Hardware realization
• D. Assembler

197. It consists of the instructions and data that the computer hardware manipulates to perform useful work.

• A. Software
• B. Program
• C. File
• D. Data

198. The data manipulated by a program is called _____ depending on its nature and extent.

• A. data base
• B. file
• C. input
• D. all of the choices

199. The most primitive instructions that can be given to a computer are those interpreted directly by the hardware in __________ form.

• A. assembly language
• B. machine language
• C. high-level language
• D. simulator

200. It represents machine instructions by mnemonic names and allows memory addresses and other constants to be represented by symbols rather than bit strings.

• A. Assembler
• B. Machine language
• C. Assembly language
• D. Interpreter

Complete List of MCQs in Electronics Engineering per topic

---

This is the Multiples Choice Questions Part 3 of the Series in Computer Fundamentals as one of the Electronics Engineering topic. In Preparation for the ECE Board Exam make sure to expose yourself and familiarize in each and every questions compiled here taken from various sources including but not limited to past Board Exam Questions in Electronics Engineering field, Electronics Books, Journals and other Electronics References.

Multiple Choice Questions Topic Outline

• MCQs in analog and Digital System
• MCQs in Binary Number System
• MCQs in Boolean Algebra
• MCQs in Mathematical Logic and Switching Networks
• MCQs in Basic digital Circuits (logic gates, flip-flops, multivibrators, etc)
• MCQs in Static and dynamic Memory Devices
• MCQs in Programming and Machine Languages
• MCQs in Information and Acquisition Processing
• MCQs in Analog / Digital Conversion
• MCQs in Computer Networking

The Series

Following is the list of multiple choice questions in this brand new series:

Continue Practice Exam Test Questions Part 3 of the Series

101. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of state tables in sequential logic circuit design?

• A. They are the systematic approach to a design problem
• B. The number of variables is limited
• C. They minimize the gating required
• D. They result in synchronous circuit

102. A situation in a system where it can never leave or progress to another state.

• A. Rest
• B. Hang-up state
• C. No change in state
• D. Toggle

103. A diagram consisting of a set of circles, where each circle contains a number of states within it.

• A. State table
• B. Transition diagram
• C. Karnaugh map
• D. Bubble diagram

104. A counter that counts sequentially but does not step through all possible states, it returns to zero after a particular state.

• A. Ripple counter
• B. Decade counter
• C. Truncated counter
• D. Binary counter

105. A circuit that produces an output pulse for a fixed period of time in response to a trigger and then returns to its quiescent state.

• A. Monostable circuit
• B. Astable circuit
• C. Bistable circuit
• D. Discriminator

106. A small change made in resistance or capacitance to time a circuit precisely.

• A. Trigger
• B. Tweaking
• C. Bounce
• D. Squeaking

107. A square wave oscillator or clock generator

• A. Astable circuit
• B. Monostable circuit
• C. Bistable circuit
• D. Debounding circuit

108. A circuit designed to produce a clean output in response to a switch closure.

• A. Monostable circuit
• B. Filter circuit
• C. Attenuator
• D. Debouncing circuit

109. Duty cycle for repetitive waveform is defined as the

• A. Ratio of the ON time to the total time
• B. Sum of the ON time and the OFF time
• C. Ratio of the OFF time to the ON time
• D. Ratio of the total time to the ON time

110. The state of a flip-flop when Q = 0 and Q’ = 1

• A. Reset
• B. Set
• C. Trigger state
• D. Tristate

111. The state of a flip=flop when Q = 1 and Q’ = 0.

• A. Reset
• B. Latch
• C. Set
• D. Glitch

112. A state causing the flip-flop to change or reverse its state.

• A. Reset
• B. Set
• C. Toggle
• D. Non-toggle

113. How many flip-flops should be used to realize 32-count capacity?

• A. 2
• B. 4
• C. 5
• D. 6

114. The time difference which results when a clock may not arrive at all flip-flops at precisely the same time.

• A. Glitch
• B. Spike
• C. Hold
• D. Clock skew

115. A _____ condition that exists if a circuit output depends on which of two nearly simultaneous inputs arrive at a point in the circuit first.

• A. glitch
• B. skew
• C. clear
• D. race

116. A one-input JK flip-flop is the _____ flip-flop.

• A. D
• B. T
• C. S-R
• D. C

117. A JK flip-flop can be made to function like a T flip-flop by simply

• A. connecting the J and K inputs together as one input
• B. connecting J = 0 and K = 0
• C. resetting all inputs of the JK
• D. connecting earth ground the JK inputs

118. The one-input RS flip-flop is the _____ flip-flop.

• A. T
• B. D
• C. R
• D. Latch

119. Which of the following does not describe a flip-flop?

• A. It is a one-bit memory device.
• B. Its interval circuitry are usually symmetrical
• C. It is a bistable device
• D. It is equivalent to a one-shot circuit

120. In clock circuits, SWG means

• A. square wave glitches
• B. standard wire gauge
• C. square wave generators
• D. standard wave ground

121. An input signal that can activate or disable a gate.

• A. Strobe
• B. Glitch
• C. Tristate
• D. Wired-AND

122. A ring counter where the output is inverted and tied back to the input

• A. Shift counter
• B. Decade counter
• C. BCD counter
• D. Johnson counter

123. A circuit that goes through 2ⁿ-1 states in a random fashion.

• A. Random generator
• B. Pseudo-random sequence generator
• C. Counting shift
• D. Register

124. An input that disables multiplexers or demultiplexers when it is HIGH.

• A. Strobe
• B. Keyboard
• C. Decoder
• D. Binary input

125. Application of excessive current to a fuse in order to open it.

• A. Shorting
• B. Blowing
• C. Breaking
• D. Disconnecting

126. An outstanding advantage of LCDs from LEDs.

• A. LCDs are organized as a 7-segment display for numerical read out
• B. LCDs can be multiplexed
• C. LCDs essentially act as a capacitor and consume almost no power
• D. LCDs generates light

127. A computer language that enables Programmable Array Logic (PAL) users to generate a file that can be used to blow a PAL.

• A. JEDEC
• B. PALASM
• C. TURBO C++
• D. Visual C

128. A type of computer bus which is bidirectional.

• A. Data bus
• B. Address
• C. Control bus
• D. Calling bus

129. A table used by a PLD language such as PALASM, to calculate the expected outputs for a set of inputs.

• A. Excitation table
• B. State table
• C. Simulation table
• D. Truth table

130. A programmable block of logic within a gate array, that contains a flip-flop for storage and also allows the user to specify logic functions on its inputs.

• A. Programmed block
• B. PLD
• C. Configurable logic block
• D. Block diagram

131. This type of bus carries the memory address from the computer to the memory.

• A. Data bus
• B. Address bus
• C. Control bus
• D. Parallel bus

132. This bus carries lines that control the operation of the memory from the microprocessor to the memory.

• A. Data bus
• B. Address bus
• C. Control bus
• D. Bus lines

133. A register which holds the address of the word currently being accessed.

• A. Hold register
• B. Memory address register
• C. Memory data register
• D. Access register

134. A register which holds the data being written into or read out of the addressed memory location.

• A. Hold register
• B. Memory data register
• C. Memory address register
• D. Glitch register

135. A preproduction model of a system built for testing and debugging,

• A. Wire list
• B. Maybe (colloquial)
• C. Prototype
• D. Sample

136. Correcting the faults in a circuit or a system.

• A. Buzz-out
• B. Debugging
• C. Trap
• D. Fault corrector

137. There are _____ flip-flops for a 3-bit binary counter.

• A. 2
• B. 3
• C. 4
• D. 5

138. A sequential logic circuit where the storage elements commonly used are time-delay devices (usually gates).

• A. Synchronous SLC
• B. Asynchronous SLC
• C. Counter
• D. Register

139. A block added to the combinational logic circuit to form a sequential logic circuit is the

• A. ROM
• B. counter
• C. clock
• D. memory

140. The state of the flip-flop before the occurrence of a clock pulse is called as its

• A. present state
• B. next state
• C. current input
• D. present output

141. The state of the flip-flop after the occurrence of a clock pulse is called as its

• A. current state
• B. present state
• C. next state
• D. current input

142. It is said to be a universal gate because any digital system can be implemented with it.

• A. NAND
• B. AND
• C. OR
• D. Exclusive OR

143. A flip-flop which follows its input in the next state.

• A. T
• B. D
• C. JK
• D. RS

144. An n-bit binary parallel adder requires _____ in its least design.

• A. n half adders
• B. n half subtractor
• C. n full adders
• D. n half subtractor and n full adder

145. A magnitude comparator has 2²ⁿ entries in the truth table where n =

• A. number of inputs
• B. number of comparator bits
• C. number of outputs
• D. number of inputs and outputs

146. An included input terminals in a magnitude comparator IC which is significant when both inputs compared are equal is called as its

• A. setting
• B. cascading inputs
• C. input terminals
• D. address

147. In designing a 16 x 1 multiplexer, how many selection lines are needed?

• A. 2
• B. 4
• C. 16
• D. 32

148. If F = xy + x’y’ Boolean expression is to be implemented using decoders and OR gates, the connection involves

• A. 2 to 4 line decoder with 3 OR gates
• B. 3 to 8 line decoder with 2 OR gates
• C. 2 to 4 line decoder with 1 OR gate
• D. 3 to 8 line decoder with 4 OR gates

149. How many AND gates and 4-bit binary adders are needed to implement a 2-bit to 3-bit binary multiplier?

• A. 15 AND gates and three 4-bit binary adders
• B. 2 AND gates and one 4-bit binary adder
• C. 9 AND gates only
• D. 6 AND gates and one 4-bit binary adder

150. From a 3-bit binary counter design using T flip-flops, determine the number of T flip-flops needed in its circuit implementation.

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 4

Complete List of MCQs in Electronics Engineering per topic

---

This is the Multiples Choice Questions Part 2 of the Series in Computer Fundamentals as one of the Electronics Engineering topic. In Preparation for the ECE Board Exam make sure to expose yourself and familiarize in each and every questions compiled here taken from various sources including but not limited to past Board Exam Questions in Electronics Engineering field, Electronics Books, Journals and other Electronics References.

Multiple Choice Questions Topic Outline

• MCQs in analog and Digital System
• MCQs in Binary Number System
• MCQs in Boolean Algebra
• MCQs in Mathematical Logic and Switching Networks
• MCQs in Basic digital Circuits (logic gates, flip-flops, multivibrators, etc)
• MCQs in Static and dynamic Memory Devices
• MCQs in Programming and Machine Languages
• MCQs in Information and Acquisition Processing
• MCQs in Analog / Digital Conversion
• MCQs in Computer Networking

The Series

Following is the list of multiple choice questions in this brand new series:

Continue Practice Exam Test Questions Part 2 of the Series

51. How does a CMOS integrated circuit respond to a floating input?

• A. Unpredictable, may overheat and be destroyed
• B. Open
• C. Shorted
• D. Acts just like a logic 1

52. Which of the following is NOT an internal digital IC fault?

• A. Open signal lines
• B. Shorted signal lines
• C. Faulty power supply
• D. Poor solder connections

53. What will be the state of Q and Q’ after a flip-flop has been reset?

• A. Q = 0, Q’ = 1
• B. Q = 1, Q’ = 0
• C. Q = 0, Q’ = 0
• D. Q = 1, Q’ = 1

54. This type of fault has the same effect as an internal short between IC pins.

• A. Open signal lines
• B. Shorted signal lines
• C. Broken wire
• D. Poor solder connections

55. Which of the following does not describe a flip-flop circuit?

• A. Latch
• B. Memory
• C. Bistable multivibrator
• D. ROM

56. What is the normal resting state of the SET and CLEAR inputs in a NAND gate latch?

• A. SET = CLEAR = 1
• B. SET = 0, CLEAR = 1
• C. SET = 1, CLEAR = 0
• D. SET = CLEAR = 0

57. Add the hex numbers 58 and 24.

• A. 7C
• B. 7D
• C. C7
• D. 2C

58. Add 3AF to 23C

• A. BE5
• B. 5EB
• C. A3B
• D. 101A

59. All arithmetic operations take place in the _____ of a computer

• A. CPU
• B. ALU
• C. Microprocessor
• D. ROM

60. How many inputs does a full adder have?

• A. 2
• B. 4
• C. 8
• D. 3

61. How many outputs does a full adder have?

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 4
• D. 8

62. How many inputs does a half adder have?

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 4

63. What are the three basic parts of a BCD adder circuit?

• A. Two 4-bit adders and connection logic
• B. Two connection logic and one 4-bit adder
• C. Two full adders and one AND gate
• D. One connection logic and 4 full adders

64. What is the principal register of an arithmetic logic unit?

• A. Controller
• B. Buffer
• C. Actuator
• D. Accumulator

65. A computer programming language in which groups of 1s and 0s are used to represent instructions. It is also the only language a computer actually understood.

• A. Application software
• B. Machine language
• C. High – level language
• D. Programming language

66. A digital circuit that produces an output code depending on which of its inputs is activated.

• A. Decoder
• B. Encoder
• C. Multiplexer
• D. Demultiplexer

67. An IC that contains a large number of interconnected logic functions wherein the user can program the IC for a specific function by selectively breaking the appropriate interconnections.

• A. RAM
• B. ROM
• C. PLD
• D. PLC

68. Class of programmable logic devices wherein its AND array is programmable while its OR array is hard-wired.

• A. PAL
• B. PLA
• C. PLD
• D. PROM

69. Class of programmable logic devices wherein both its AND and its OR arrays are programmable.

• A. Field Programmable Logic Array
• B. Programmable Logic Controller
• C. Programmable Logic Circuit
• D. Programmable Array Logic

70. A result which is obtained when one is added to the least significant bit position of a binary number in the 1’s complement.

• A. Spike
• B. 2’s complement form
• C. Complement
• D. Signed binary numbers

71. A digital circuit that oscillates between two unstable output states.

• A. Monostable multivibrator
• B. Astable multivibrator
• C. Bistable multivibrator
• D. Flip-flop

72. An electrical connection common to all segments of an LCD.

• A. Dual slope
• B. Bootstrap
• C. Backplane
• D. Cascade

73. A binary counter that counts from 0000 to 1001 before it recycles.

• A. Buffer
• B. BCD counter
• C. Ring counter
• D. Ripple counter

74. A shift register in which the output of the last flip-flop is connected to the input of the first flip-flop.

• A. Ring counter
• B. Ripple counter
• C. Parallel counter
• D. BCD counter

75. A term synonymous with CLEAR in computer systems.

• A. Reset
• B. Set
• C. Toggle
• D. Load

76. That part of a computer instruction that defines what type of operation the computer is to execute on specified data.

• A. Machine language
• B. Mnemonic
• C. Assembly language
• D. Op code

77. An abbreviation that represents the op code of a computer instruction.

• A. ASCII
• B. Mnemonic
• C. Octets
• D. Instruction

78. A property whereby the output of a digital-to-analog converter either increases or stays the same as the input is increased.

• A. Volatility
• B. Immunity
• C. Monotonicity
• D. Parity

79. Class of mass memory devices that use a laser beam to write and read onto a specified coated disk.

• A. Mass storage
• B. RAM
• C. Optical disk memory
• D. Non-volatile memory

80. A term used to describe the logic function created when open-collector outputs are tied together.

• A. Wired-OR
• B. Wired-AND
• C. Totem-pole
• D. Tristate

81. A technique often used to eliminate decoding spikes.

• A. Wired-AND
• B. Strobing
• C. Tristate
• D. Wired-NAND

82. A momentary, narrow, spurious and sharply defined change in volume.

• A. Glitch
• B. Strobe
• C. Toggle
• D. Clock

83. A single bit comparator is usually implemented using

• A. Exclusive OR
• B. NOR gate
• C. Exclusive NOR
• D. Wired-AND

84. An equivalent Boolean equation for an exclusive NOR is

• A. xy + x’y’
• B. xy + xy’
• C. x’y + xy’
• D. xy’+ x’y’

85. Data storage in a memory is termed as

• A. writing
• B. memorizing
• C. loading
• D. reading

86. Data retrieval from a memory is called

• A. getting
• B. accessing
• C. reading
• D. fetching

87. In BCD, the code 1111 is

• A. letter F
• B. A
• C. 11
• D. Invalid

88. A decoder with four inputs can have a maximum of how many outputs?

• A. 4
• B. 8
• C. 16
• D. 32

89. Another name for a digital multiplexer is

• A. data selector
• B. compressor
• C. encoder
• D. decoder

90. An astable multivibrator has

• A. one stable state
• B. two stable states
• C. no stable state
• D. tristate

91. A bistable multivibrator has

• A. one stable state
• B. two stable states
• C. no stable state
• D. tristate

92. A monostable multivibrator has

• A. one stable state
• B. two stable states
• C. no stable state
• D. tristate

93. A type of multivibrator circuit which generates a square wave of its own is the

• A. astable
• B. monostable
• C. bistable
• D. flip-flop

94. A situation when a circuit’s output level for a given set of input conditions can be assigned as either a 1 or a 0.

• A. Don’t care
• B. Totem Pole
• C. Low level
• D. High level

95. Circuits made up of combinations of logic gates, with no feedback from outputs to inputs.

• A. Latch
• B. Sequential logic circuit
• C. Combinational logic circuit
• D. Memory

96. A digital circuit that takes a 4-bit BCD input and activates the required outputs to display the equivalent decimal digit on a 7-segment display.

• A. BCD-to-decimal decoder
• B. BCD-to-7-segment driver
• C. Decimal to BCD driver
• D. 7-segment display

97. Asynchronous flip-flop input used to clear Q immediately to 0.

• A. DC set
• B. DC clear
• C. DC reset
• D. DC toggle

98. A counter that counts from a maximum count downward to zero

• A. Synchronous counter
• B. Down counter
• C. Up counter
• D. Up/down counter

99. Small circles on the input or output lines of logic circuit symbols which represent inversion of a particular signal.

• A. Bootstrap
• B. Bubble
• C. Strobe
• D. Clode

100. A multiplexer is described by its size through _____, where n = number of bits.

• A. n x 2ⁿ
• B. 1 x 2ⁿ
• C. 2ⁿ x 1
• D. 2ⁿ x m

Complete List of MCQs in Electronics Engineering per topic

---