This is the Multiples Choice Questions Part 3 of the Series in Physics as one of the General Engineering and Applied Sciences (GEAS) topic. In Preparation for the ECE Board Exam make sure to expose yourself and familiarize in each and every questions compiled here taken from various sources including past Board Questions in General Engineering and Applied Sciences (GEAS), Physics Books, Journals and other Physics References.
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Following is the list of multiple choice questions in this brand new series:
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Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
101. Angular momentum is the product of ________.
- A. moment of inertia and linear speed
- B. moment of area and angular speed
- C. moment of inertia and angular speed
- D. moment of area and angular speed
102. “When the sum of the external torques acting on a system of particles is zero, the total angular momentum of the system remains constant “. This statement is known as:
- A. Conservation of energy
- B. Conservation of impulse
- C. Conservation of linear momentum
- D. Conservation of angular momentum
103. What particles will experience tangential acceleration?
- A. Those particles whose angular speed changes
- B. Those particles whose angular speed remains constant
- C. All particles
- D. Those particles whose angular speed is zero.
104. The _________ of a body about a given axis is the rotational analog of mass of the body is distributed about the axis.
- A. moment of mass
- B. moment of area
- C. moment of inertia
- D. torque
105. The _______ of a force about a particular axis is the product of the magnitude of the force and the perpendicular distance from the line of action of the force to the axis.
- A. inertia
- B. mass moment
- C. torque
- D. moment
106. When the forces that act on an object have a vector sum of zero, the object is said to be in _______.
- A. unstable equilibrium
- B. stable equilibrium
- C. rotational equilibrium
- D. translational equilibrium
107. Which of the following is an example of a neutral equilibrium?
- A. A cone balanced on its apex.
- B. A cone balanced on its base.
- C. A cone on its side.
- D. A cone balanced on the circumference of its base.
108. Which of the following is an example of a stable equilibrium?
- A. A cone balanced on its apex.
- B. A cone balanced on its base.
- C. A cone on its side.
- D. A cone balanced on the circumference of its base.
109. A device that transmits force or torque is called _______.
- A. mechanical tool
- B. machine
- C. axle
- D. wedge
110. If a cone is balanced on its apex, it illustrates what type of equilibrium?
- A. stable equilibrium
- B. neutral equilibrium
- C. unstable equilibrium
- D. translational equilibrium
111. When the net torque acting on an object is zero, the object is in _______.
- A. unstable equilibrium
- B. stable equilibrium
- C. rotational equilibrium
- D. translational equilibrium
112. Which of the following is NOT a basic machine?
- A. lever
- B. incline plane
- C. hydraulic press
- D. wedge
113. Where is the center of gravity of an object located?
- A. It is always inside the object.
- B. It is always outside the object.
- C. It is always at its geometric center.
- D. It may sometimes be inside the object and sometimes outside the object.
114. What is defined as the mass per unit volume?
- A. Density
- B. Weight density
- C. Relative density
- D. Specific density
115. What is defined as the weight per unit volume?
- A. Density
- B. Weight density
- C. Relative density
- D. Specific density
116. All are values of the density of water except one. Which one?
- A. 1000 kg/m3
- B. 62.4 lb/ft3
- C. 10 g/cm3
- D. 9.81 kN/m3
117. The __________ of a substance is its density relative to that of water?
- A. density
- B. weight density
- C. viscosity
- D. specific gravity
118. What is another term for specific gravity?
- A. Density
- B. Weight density
- C. Relative density
- D. Viscosity
119. What is the average pressure of the earth’s atmosphere at sea level?
- A. 1.042 bar
- B. 1.021 bar
- C. 1.013 bar
- D. 1.037 bar
120. “An external pressure exerted on a fluid is transmitted uniformly throughout the volume of the fluid”. This statement is known as ________.
- A. Bernoulli’s energy theorem
- B. Pascal’s principle
- C. Archimedes principle
- D. Torricelli’s theorem
121. The hydraulic press is an instrument which uses one of the following theorems. Which one?
- A. Bernoulli’s energy theorem
- B. Pascal’s principle
- C. Archimedes principle
- D. Reynold’s principle
122. The hydrometer is an instrument which uses one of the following theorems. Which one?
- A. Bernoulli’s energy theorem
- B. Pascal’s principle
- C. Archimedes principle
- D. Reynold’s principle
123. The hydrometer is an instrument used to measure __________.
- A. pressure of a liquid
- B. density of a liquid
- C. Reynold’s number
- D. viscosity of liquid
124. The maximum displacement of an object undergoing harmonic motion on either side of its equilibrium position is called the _________ of the motion.
- A. frequency
- B. oscillation
- C. period
- D. amplitude
125. What quantity is often used in describing harmonic motion?
- A. Amplitude
- B. Frequency
- C. Period
- D. Oscillation
126. The period of the simple harmonic motion is _______ its amplitude.
- A. directly proportional to
- B. inversely proportional to
- C. equal to
- D. independent of
127. What refers to an oscillatory motion that occurs whenever a restoring force acts on a body in the opposite direction to its displacement from its equilibrium position, with the magnitude of the restoring force proportional to the magnitude of the displacement?
- A. Damped harmonic motion
- B. Pendulum
- C. Simple harmonic motion
- D. Damped harmonic oscillation
128. In a damped harmonic oscillator, what reduces the amplitude of the vibrations?
- A. Force
- B. Period
- C. Frequency
- D. Friction
129. The _________ of a pivotal object is that point at which it can be struck without producing a reaction force on its pivot.
- A. center of gravity
- B. center of oscillation
- C. axis of oscillation
- D. center of mass
130. What is a longitudinal wave phenomenon that results in periodic pressure variations?
- A. Sound
- B. Resonance
- C. Wave
- D. Beat
131. What occurs when periodic impulses are applied to a system and frequency equal to one of its natural frequencies of oscillation?
- A. Beat
- B. Resonance
- C. Doppler effect
- D. Shock wave
132. What refers to a shell of high pressure produced by the motion of an object whose speed exceeds that of sound?
- A. Shock wave
- B. Mach wave
- C. Beat wave
- D. Sonic wave
133. What refers to the change in frequency of a wave when there is relative motion between its source and an observer?
- A. Superposition principle
- B. Shock effect
- C. Doppler effect
- D. Wave motion
134. What occur when the individual particles of a medium vibrate back and forth in the direction in which the waves travel?
- A. Longitudinal waves
- B. Transverse waves
- C. Wave motions
- D. Shock waves
135. Infrasound refers to sounds whose frequencies are below _________.
- A. 20 Hz
- B. 30 Hz
- C. 40 Hz
- D. 50 Hz
136. Ultrasound refers to sounds whose frequencies are above __________.
- A. 10,000 Hz
- B. 20,000 Hz
- C. 30,000 Hz
- D. 40,000 Hz
137. What occur when the individual particles of a medium vibrate from side to side perpendicular to the direction in which the waves travel?
- A. Longitudinal waves
- B. Transverse waves
- C. Wave motions
- D. Shock waves
138. “When two or more waves of the same mature travel just a given point at the same time, the amplitude at the point is the sum of the amplitude of the individual waves”. This statement is known as ________.
- A. Mach principle
- B. Doppler principle
- C. Principle of superposition
- D. Wave motion principle
139. What occurs when the resulting composite wave has amplitude greater than that of either of the original waves?
- A. Local interference
- B. Ordinary interference
- C. Constructive interference
- D. Destructive interference
140. What occurs when the resulting composite wave has amplitude less than that of either of the original waves?
- A. Local interference
- B. Ordinary interference
- C. Constructive interference
- D. Destructive interference
141. The rate at which a wave of any kind carries energy per unit cross-sectional area is called ________.
- A. beats
- B. frequency
- C. gain
- D. intensity
142. At what intensity will sound wave starts to damage the ear of humans.
- A. 10 W/m2
- B. 0.1 W/m2
- C. 1 W/m2
- D. 0.01 W/m2
143. For a 1kHz sound wave to be audible, it must have a minimum intensity of ______ W/m2?
- A. 10^-10
- B. 10^-11
- C. 10^-12
- D. 10^-13
144. How many decibels should a sound to be barely audible?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 0.1
- D. 1.5
145. The ratio of a speed of an object and the speed of sound is called the _________.
- A. Wave factor
- B. Supersonic number
- C. Sonic number
- D. Mach number
146. “The net electric charge in an isolated system remains constant”. This statement is known as ________.
- A. Principle of conservation of attraction
- B. Principle of conservation of charge
- C. Coulomb’s law
- D. Principle of superconductivity
147. “The force one charge exerts on another is directly proportional to the magnitudes of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them”. This statement is known as ________.
- A. Coulomb’s law
- B. Kirchhoff’s law
- C. Lenz’s law
- D. Faraday’s law
148. What refers to a region of space at every point of which an appropriate test object would experience a force?
- A. Energy field
- B. Electric field
- C. magnetic field
- D. Force field
149. The _________ of an electric field is the electric potential energy per unit volume associated with it.
- A. capacitance
- B. polar energy
- C. energy density
- D. dielectric distance
150. What is the ratio between the charge on either plates of a capacitor and the potential difference between the plates?
- A. Resistance
- B. Inductance
- C. Capacitance
- D. Potential difference
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